What is meant by the phrase "fulfil all righteousness” in Matthew 3:15?
Matthew 3:13-15
Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him. But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me? And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.
Notice here that we get a huge clue in the text. Notice that whatever this ‘all righteousness’ that needed to be ‘fulfilled,’ it was very closely associated with John's baptism (v. 13)! In order to fill this all righteousness our Lord must needs go to John and be baptized of him. So what's so important about John's baptism of Jesus? Well, notice these next verses from the book of John...
John 1:25-33
And they asked him, and said unto him, Why baptizest thou then, if thou be not that Christ, nor Elias, neither that prophet? John answered them, saying, I baptize with water: but there standeth one among you, whom ye know not; He it is, who coming after me is preferred before me, whose shoe's latchet I am not worthy to unloose. These things were done in Bethabara beyond Jordan, where John was baptizing. The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world. This is he of whom I said, After me cometh a man which is preferred before me: for he was before me. And I knew him not: but that he should be made manifest to Israel, therefore am I come baptizing with water. And John bare record, saying, I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and it abode upon him. And I knew him not: but he that sent me to baptize with water, the same said unto me, Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him, the same is he which baptizeth with the Holy Ghost. And I saw, and bare record that this is the Son of God.
So the first and main reason for Jesus to submit to John's baptism was to fulfill God's word—which is God's righteousness—they had to perform what His Word had said to do!
Isaiah 42:21
The LORD is well pleased for his righteousness' sake; he will magnify the law, and make it honourable.
Luke 1:5-6
There was in the days of Herod, the king of Judaea, a certain priest named Zacharias, of the course of Abia: and his wife was of the daughters of Aaron, and her name was Elisabeth. And they were both righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blameless.
So that Israel's Messiah might be made manifest, both our Lord and John had to do what God's Word said to do. And John's main job was to be the forerunner of Messiah and prepare His way before Israel!
Now, secondarily, our Lord's baptism by John also fulfilled other types in scripture...particularly those of the priesthood. Look at this passage from Exodus 29...
Exodus 29:4-7
And Aaron and his sons thou shalt bring unto the door of the tabernacle of the congregation, and shalt wash them with water. And thou shalt take the garments, and put upon Aaron the coat, and the robe of the ephod, and the ephod, and the breastplate, and gird him with the curious girdle of the ephod: And thou shalt put the mitre upon his head, and put the holy crown upon the mitre. Then shalt thou take the anointing, and pour it upon his head, and anoint him.
So as their High Priest, the One whom all the priests of Israel pointed to, Jesus Himself was washed (with water), and anointed for service (with the true oil of God...the Holy Ghost)!
Lastly, did you notice that although John was told by God and also said to the people that he would not know who Christ was until the Spirit revealed Him by coming upon Him like a dove? But John has that conversation with Him about needing to be baptized by Him before John baptized Him? So what's up with that?
Well here is what I see, John makes it clear that his baptism of Jesus was mostly for Israel's sake, and not so much for His.
John 1:31
And I knew him not: but that he should be made manifest to Israel, therefore I am come baptizing with water.
It is obvious that God the Father gave John some type of premonition or advanced revelation at the moment Jesus showed up. (Much like He did with Peter in revealing Jesus' identity.)
Matthew 16:17
And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Barjona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven.
So in essence, the public declaration of Jesus as Messiah by the Holy Ghost coming upon Him as well as the voice of God the Father later on declaring it verbally, were additional signs by God the Father to John of who Messiah was (the Jews require a sign).
Hopefully this helps...Maranatha!
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